There is a car that was bought by a relative that was over 10 years old and advertised as having only 60k mileage. This relative inspected the car before purchasing it and saw that the mileage was indeed around that number on the digital display.
Recently, after talking about car mileages, and seeing that the car, almost exactly two years later, had done 59k and was now at 119k made us wonder how the car could have done that many miles in only two years with no heavy use. This car is not used for long journeys, and as of the last year has only been in use for a few months of the year, and not much else except for short errands like shopping, pick-ups etc. We then checked the MOT history on the car and the only time the mileage was ~60k was at the year before the start of this decade, and in the month the car was bought and an MOT test was done, the mileage was at 110k, not 60k.
This lead us to believe that the car must have been clocked back for my relative to see 60k on the display. The car has never been taken on any long journeys, and hasn't really been taken outside of our city (at most maybe 4-5+ times, and only to surrounding areas). But is it possible for a car's mileage to roll back to it's correct mileage after it's been clocked?
Edit: Corrected original mileage.
Note: This question is not about determining whether a car's mileage is real, it is about determining how a car's mileage can roll back to it's correct one.