I looked on the internet and couldn't find a direct answer. I have a car and i was told i new new rotors because the rear-driver side couldn't be turn down enough to remove the pits/lands to make it smooth without going below minimum specification of thickness.
Without going into details, the rear rotors (both have been turned) but the one with the most damage was turned down more reducing the thickness. Can the car brake evenly with different thickness rotors?? Wouldn't it cause unequal balance in braking pressure?
My thought is (mine you hypothetical numbers) if the braking hydrualtics is equal on both sides say 35psi. And the rotors are different thicknesses, wouldn't the brake pads/caliber have different travel times? That being the case, I would think 35psi on both sides would be inadequate, because, the amount of force needed to stop (push the brake pads against the rotor) would be different. One may need 45psi vs 35psi to exert the same amount of force against the rotor?
I'm sure something is flaw in my [b]concept[/b] thinking here but would this be true? I'm not a mechanic or a auto technician. But can someone give me their thoughts on why concept of thinking here. Please ignore the idea of braking with below minimum specs. I'm only asking about a certain question.